the entire premise is faulty.
The findings do not correlate in the inverse. Do the number of men who masturbate indicate a likeliness to develop prostate cancer?
In other words this study does not say that X percent of men who masturbated regularly developed cancer and Y percent who did not developed cancer. And besides a 10 percent spread is too easily explainable from other factors - how regularly, backgrounds, general health etc.
And besides, what does "regularly" mean? Is once or twice a day for the last 30 years or so considered regular?
This whole study is wrong (I hope, I hope, I hope)
I am impressed however, that the author refrained from using the term "sample size"..........
