Why is it when a police officer shoots and kills an African American in an alley behind a warehouse at 4:00 a.m. there are at least 12 African Americans who claimed to witness the shooting and know for a fact that the man was unarmed. Yet when an African American shoots and kills another African American on a rowhouse street at 6:00 p.m. with children playing an adults sitting on their door steps there are no witnesses to the shooting?

Why is it the Jews say " Never again Never again " pertaining to the holocaust and blame the world for allowing the holocaust to happen yet never said anything when the same thing happened in Bosnia and Somalia.

Why is it some homosexuals are upset, now that they are allowed to be married and some companies are dropping benifits for "significant others", did they want it both ways? Also are they subject to common law marriage laws as hetrosexuals?

These questions came to mind reading RICKAMAVINS post on "Racism". Just wondering.

JonR

While you're at it, ask him if the Mossad is "them" and if he supports Israel... Good luck.

JonR

"yet never said anything when the same thing happened in Bosnia and Somalia."

isn't that the responsibility of the bosnian and somalians?

dp you know anything at all about a ship called the saint louis?

Why is it that when I have been passed over for a job it was called "affirmative action," but when a person of another race is passed over it is called "racism?"